why the variance in spelling trends for words ending in &quo

English grammar and usage issues

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cfsoda
Member
Posts: 3
Joined: 28 Apr 2004, 00:40

why the variance in spelling trends for words ending in &quo

Unread post by cfsoda »

I have a question which I hope you can answer; I am an English-language instructor and some of my students have posed the following, which I cannot answer:

(1) Why would someone from Seoul be called a "Seoulite" and someone from London be called a "Londoner"? (ditto for "Filipino" instead of "Philippinian", "Spaniard" instead of "Spainer" or "Spainian" etc). How and from what "rules" are these pronouns standardized?

THANK YOU FOR YOUR TIME!!
jasminade
Rising Star
Posts: 80
Joined: 26 Jul 2004, 14:23

no exact science?

Unread post by jasminade »

mmm:

some nationalities have a certain shape but they are exceptional:

-ish (mostly European): Irish, British, English, Scottish, Finnish, Polish, Spanish, Turkish...

-ese (mostly Asian): Japanese, Burmese, Chinese, Taiwanese, Vietnamese, Portugese

-i (mostly Middle Eastern and Asian): Bahrani, Iraqi, Israeli, Thai, Kuwaiti, Pakistani, Saudi

- an/ian: American, Italian, Indonesian, Australian, Canadian, Russian

-ch: French, Czech, Dutch, Korean

some others: Icelandic, Greek, Filipino, Swiss, Malagasy

hope it's of help!
danobodhisattvah
Member
Posts: 6
Joined: 31 Aug 2005, 06:49

Unread post by danobodhisattvah »

I'm pretty sure there ARE no rules, and it is just case by case.

It comes from local tradition I would suspect.
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