why the variance in spelling trends for words ending in &quo

English grammar and usage issues

Moderators: Alex Case, Susan

why the variance in spelling trends for words ending in &quo

Unread postby cfsoda » Wed Apr 28, 2004 12:48 am

I have a question which I hope you can answer; I am an English-language instructor and some of my students have posed the following, which I cannot answer:

(1) Why would someone from Seoul be called a "Seoulite" and someone from London be called a "Londoner"? (ditto for "Filipino" instead of "Philippinian", "Spaniard" instead of "Spainer" or "Spainian" etc). How and from what "rules" are these pronouns standardized?

THANK YOU FOR YOUR TIME!!
cfsoda
Registered Member
 
Posts: 3
Joined: Wed Apr 28, 2004 12:40 am

no exact science?

Unread postby jasminade » Mon Aug 23, 2004 4:40 pm

mmm:

some nationalities have a certain shape but they are exceptional:

-ish (mostly European): Irish, British, English, Scottish, Finnish, Polish, Spanish, Turkish...

-ese (mostly Asian): Japanese, Burmese, Chinese, Taiwanese, Vietnamese, Portugese

-i (mostly Middle Eastern and Asian): Bahrani, Iraqi, Israeli, Thai, Kuwaiti, Pakistani, Saudi

- an/ian: American, Italian, Indonesian, Australian, Canadian, Russian

-ch: French, Czech, Dutch, Korean

some others: Icelandic, Greek, Filipino, Swiss, Malagasy

hope it's of help!
jasminade
Gold Member
 
Posts: 81
Joined: Mon Jul 26, 2004 2:23 pm
Location: Shenyang, China

Unread postby danobodhisattvah » Wed Aug 31, 2005 7:17 am

I'm pretty sure there ARE no rules, and it is just case by case.

It comes from local tradition I would suspect.
danobodhisattvah
Registered Member
 
Posts: 6
Joined: Wed Aug 31, 2005 6:49 am


Return to Grammar and Usage



Who is online

Users browsing this forum: No registered users and 4 guests